QRZ! Ham Radio 5

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3A-3.2 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 10.14-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 3A-3.3 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 3725-kHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 3A-3.4 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 7080-kHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 3A-3.5 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on 24.95-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts PEP output D. 2000 watts DC input 3A-3.7 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station transmitting on 21.150-MHz? A. 200 watts PEP output B. 1000 watts DC input C. 1500 watts DC input D. 1500 watts PEP output 3A-4.1 How must a General control operator at a Novice station make the station identification when transmitting on 7250 kHz in ITU Region 2? A. The control operator should identify the station with his or her call, followed by the word "controlling" and the Novice call B. The control operator should identify the station with his or her call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) and the Novice call C. The control operator should identify the station with the Novice call, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) and his or her own call D. A Novice station should not be operated on 7250 kHz, even with a General class control operator 3A-4.3 How must a control operator who has a Technician class license and a "Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination" for General class privileges identify the station when transmitting on 14.325 MHz? (Assume telephony) A. General-class privileges do not include 14.325 MHz B. No special form of identification is needed C. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by "slant mark" or any suitable word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "AG" D. The operator shall give his/her call sign, followed by the date and location of the VEC examination where he/she obtained the upgraded license 3A-6.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may third-party communications be transmitted to a foreign country by an amateur station where the third party is not eligible to be a control operator of the station? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the country has a third-party communications agreement with the United States C. Only if the control operator is an Amateur Extra class licensee D. Only if the country has formal diplomatic relations with the United States 3A-6.2 What types of messages may be transmitted by an amateur station to a foreign country for a third-party? A. Third-party communications involving material compensation, either tangible or intangible, direct or indirect, to a third party, a station licensee, a control operator, or other person B. Third-party communications facilitating the business affairs of any party C. Third-party communications limited to messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties 3A-6.6 Which of the following limitations apply to third-party messages transmitted to foreign countries where the third party is not eligible to be a control operator of the station? A. Third-party messages may only be transmitted to amateurs in countries with which the US has a third-party communications agreement B. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 1 C. Third-party messages may only be sent to amateurs in ITU Region 3 D. Third-party messages must always be transmitted in English 3A-8.6 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station transmitting on 29.64-MHz repeat the 146.34-MHz signals of an amateur station with a Technician control operator? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the station on 29.64 MHz is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency D. Only if the control operator of the repeater transmitter is authorized to operate on 29.64 MHz 3A-9.1 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 160-meter wavelength band? A. 1800 to 1900 kHz only B. 1900 to 2000 kHz only C. 1800 to 2000 kHz only D. 1825 to 2000 kHz only 3A-9.2 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 75/80-meter wavelength band? A. 3525 to 3750 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only B. 3525 to 3775 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only C. 3525 to 3750 and 3875 to 4000 kHz only D. 3525 to 3775 and 3850 to 4000 kHz only 3A-9.3 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 40-meter wavelength band? A. 7025 to 7175 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only B. 7025 to 7175 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only C. 7025 to 7150 and 7200 to 7300 kHz only D. 7025 to 7150 and 7225 to 7300 kHz only 3A-9.4 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 30-meter wavelength band? A. 10,100 to 10,150 kHz only B. 10,105 to 10,150 kHz only C. 10,125 to 10,150 kHz only D. 10,100 to 10,125 kHz only 3A-9.5 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 20-meter wavelength band? A. 14,025 to 14,100 and 14,175 to 14,350 kHz only B. 14,025 to 14,150 and 14,225 to 14,350 kHz only C. 14,025 to 14,125 and 14,200 to 14,350 kHz only D. 14,025 to 14,175 and 14,250 to 14,350 kHz only 3A-9.6 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 15-meter wavelength band? A. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only B. 21,025 to 21,150 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only C. 21,025 to 21,200 and 21,300 to 21,450 kHz only D. 21,000 to 21,150 and 21,275 to 21,450 kHz only 3A-9.7 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 12-meter wavelength band? A. 24,890 to 24,990 kHz only B. 24,890 to 24,975 kHz only C. 24,900 to 24,990 kHz only D. 24,790 to 24,990 kHz only 3A-9.8 What frequency privileges are authorized to General operators in the 10-meter wavelength band? A. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only B. 28,025 to 29,700 kHz only C. 28,100 to 29,700 kHz only D. 28,025 to 29,600 kHz only 3A-9.9 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 1820-kHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only 3A-9.10 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 3950-kHz? A. Extra, Advanced only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice only 3A-9.11 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 7230-kHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only 3A-9.12 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 10.125- MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra only D. Technician only 3A-9.13 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 14.325- MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only B. Extra, Advanced, General only C. Extra, Advanced only D. Extra only 3A-9.14 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 21.425- MHz? A. Extra, Advanced, General, Novice only B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. Extra, Advanced only 3A-9.15 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 24.895- MHz? A. Extra only B. Extra, Advanced only C. Extra, Advanced, General only D. None 3A-9.16 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 29.616- MHz? A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only B. Technician, General, Advanced, Extra only C. General, Advanced, Extra only D. Advanced, Extra only 3A-10.1 On what frequencies within the 160-meter wavelength band may phone emissions be transmitted? A. 1800-2000 kHz only B. 1800-1900 kHz only C. 1900-2000 kHz only D. 1825-1950 kHz only 3A-10.2 On what frequencies within the 80-meter wavelength band may CW emissions be transmitted? A. 3500-3750 kHz only B. 3700-3750 kHz only C. 3500-4000 kHz only D. 3890-4000 kHz only 3A-10.3 On what frequencies within the 40-meter wavelength band may image emissions be transmitted? A. 7225-7300 kHz only B. 7000-7300 kHz only C. 7100-7150 kHz only D. 7150-7300 kHz only 3A-10.4 On what frequencies within the 30-meter wavelength band may RTTY emissions be transmitted? A. 10.140-10.150 MHz only B. 10.125-10.150 MHz only C. 10.100-10.150 MHz only D. 10.100-10.125 MHz only 3A-10.5 On what frequencies within the 20-meter wavelength band may image emissions be transmitted? A. 14,200-14,300 kHz only B. 14,150-14,350 kHz only C. 14,025-14,150 kHz only D. 14,150-14,300 kHz only 3A-10.6 On what frequencies within the 15-meter wavelength band may image emissions be transmitted? A. 21,200-21,300 kHz only B. 21,350-21,450 kHz only C. 21,200-21,450 kHz only D. 21,100-21,200 kHz only 3A-10.7 On what frequencies within the 12-meter wavelength band may phone emissions be transmitted? A. 24,890-24,990 kHz only B. 24,890-24,930 kHz only C. 24,930-24,990 kHz only D. Phone emissions are not permitted in this band 3A-10.8 On what frequencies within the 10-meter wavelength band may phone emissions be transmitted? A. 28,000-28,300 kHz only B. 29,000-29,700 kHz only C. 28,300-29,700 kHz only D. 28,000-29,000 kHz only 3A-13.1 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for data emissions below 28 MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 300 bauds D. 1200 bauds 3A-13.2 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for RTTY emissions below 28 MHz? A. 56 kilobauds B. 19.6 kilobauds C. 1200 bauds D. 300 bauds 3A-14.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station engage in some form of broadcasting? A. During severe storms, amateurs may broadcast weather information for people with scanners B. Under no circumstances C. If power levels under one watt are used, amateur stations may broadcast information bulletins, but not music D. Amateur broadcasting is permissible above 10 GHz 3A-14.6 Which of the following is ++++not++++ a condition that allows an amateur station to engage in news gathering for broadcast purposes? A. The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur Radio B. The information involves the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property C. The information is directly related to the event D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means 3A-15.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a violin be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission C. Only above 1215 MHz D. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service 3A-15.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a piano be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission B. Only above 1215 MHz C. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service D. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions 3A-15.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may the playing of a harmonica be transmitted by an amateur station? A. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious emissions B. Transmitting music is not permitted in the Amateur Service C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission D. Only above 1215 MHz 3A-16.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the communication? A. Only above 450 MHz B. Only on Field Day C. Never D. Only during a declared communications emergency 3A-16.2 In an amateur communication, what types of abbreviations or procedural signals are not considered codes or ciphers? A. Abbreviations and procedural signals certified by the ARRL B. Abbreviations and procedural signals established by regulation or custom and usage and whose intent is to facilitate communication and not to obscure meaning C. No abbreviations are permitted, as they tend to obscure the meaning of the message to FCC monitoring stations D. Only "10-codes" are permitted 3A-16.3 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way domestic Amateur Radio communications? A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored contests C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during nationally declared emergencies D. Codes or ciphers are permitted above 2.3 GHz 3A-16.4 When, if ever, are codes or ciphers permitted in two-way international Amateur Radio communications? A. Codes or ciphers are prohibited under all circumstances B. Codes or ciphers are permitted during ITU-sponsored DX contests C. Codes or ciphers are permitted during internationally declared emergencies D. Codes or ciphers are permitted only on frequencies above 2.3 GHz 3B-1.4 What is meant by the term ++++flattopping++++ in a single-sideband phone transmission? A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed 3B-1.5 How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks D. For a dip in plate current 3B-2.1 In what segment of the 20-meter wavelength band do most RTTY transmissions take place? A. Between 14.000 and 14.050 MHz B. Between 14.075 and 14.100 MHz C. Between 14.150 and 14.225 MHz D. Between 14.275 and 14.350 MHz 3B-2.2 In what segment of the 80-meter wavelength band do most RTTY transmissions take place? A. 3.610 to 3.630 MHz B. 3500 to 3525 kHz C. 3700 to 3750 kHz D. 3.775 to 3.825 MHz 3B-2.3 What is meant by the term ++++Baudot++++? A. Baudot is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits B. Baudot is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits D. Baudot is a 6-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits 3B-2.4 What is meant by the term ++++ASCII++++? A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with additional start, stop and parity bits B. ASCII is a 7-bit code in which each character has four mark and three space bits C. ASCII is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits D. ASCII is a 5-bit code in which each character has three mark and two space bits 3B-2.6 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? A. 85 Hz B. 170 Hz C. 425 Hz D. 850 Hz 3B-2.10 What are the two subset modes of AMTOR? A. A mark of 2125 Hz and a space of 2295 Hz B. Baudot and ASCII C. ARQ and FEC D. USB and LSB 3B-2.11 What is the meaning of the term ++++ARQ++++? A. Automatic Repeater Queue B. Automatic Receiver Quieting C. Automatically Resend Quickly D. Automatic Repeat Request 3B-2.12 What is the meaning of the term ++++FEC++++? A. Frame Error Check B. Forward Error Correction C. Frequency Envelope Control D. Frequency Encoded Connection 3B-3.8 What is a ++++band plan++++? A. An outline adopted by Amateur Radio operators for operating within a specific portion of radio spectrum B. An arrangement for deviating from FCC Rules and Regulations C. A schedule for operating devised by the Federal Communications Commission D. A plan devised for a club on how best to use a band during a contest 3B-3.12 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for a 10 meter station in repeater operation? A. 100 kHz B. 600 kHz C. 1.6 MHz D. 170 Hz 3B-4.1 What is meant by the term ++++VOX transmitter control++++? A. Circuitry that causes the transmitter to transmit automatically when the operator speaks into the microphone B. Circuitry that shifts the frequency of the transmitter when the operator switches from radiotelegraphy to radiotelephony C. Circuitry that activates the receiver incremental tuning in a transceiver D. Circuitry that isolates the microphone from the ambient noise level 3B-4.2 What is the common name for the circuit that causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when a person speaks into the microphone? A. VXO B. VOX C. VCO D. VFO 3B-5.1 What is meant by the term ++++full break-in telegraphy++++? A. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the breaking station sends the Morse Code symbols BK B. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which only automatic keyers can be used C. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the operator must activate the send-receive switch after completing a transmission D. A system of radiotelegraph communication in which the receiver is sensitive to incoming signals between transmitted key pulses 3B-5.2 What Q signal is used to indicate full break-in telegraphy capability? A. QSB B. QSF C. QSK D. QSV 3B-6.1 When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. 5 to 50 Hz B. 150 to 500 Hz C. Approximately 3 kHz D. Approximately 6 kHz 3B-6.2 When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. 150 to 500 Hz between suppressed carriers B. Approximately 3 kHz between suppressed carriers C. Approximately 6 kHz between suppressed carriers D. Approximately 10 kHz between suppressed carriers 3B-6.3 When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what is the minimum frequency separation from a QSO in progress that should be allowed in order to minimize interference? A. Approximately 45 Hz center to center B. Approximately 250 to 500 Hz center to center C. Approximately 3 kHz center to center D. Approximately 6 kHz center to center 3B-7.1 What is an ++++azimuthal++++ map? A. A map projection that is always centered on the North Pole B. A map projection, centered on a particular location, that determines the shortest path between two points on the surface of the earth C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit 3B-7.2 How can an azimuthal map be helpful in conducting international HF radio communications? A. It is used to determine the proper beam heading for the shortest path to a DX station B. It is used to determine the most efficient transmitting antenna height to conduct the desired communication C. It is used to determine the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator D. It is used to determine the maximum usable frequency (MUF) 3B-7.3 What is the most useful type of map when orienting a directional antenna toward a station 5,000 miles distant? A. Azimuthal B. Mercator C. Polar projection D. Topographical 3B-7.4 A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from the short-path heading? A. 45 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 270 degrees 3B-7.5 What is the short-path heading to Antarctica? A. Approximately 0 degrees B. Approximately 90 degrees C. Approximately 180 degrees D. Approximately 270 degrees 3B-8.1 When permitted, transmissions to amateur stations in another country must be limited to only what type of messages? A. Messages of any type are permitted B. Messages that compete with public telecommunications services C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character of relative unimportance D. Such transmissions are never permitted 3B-8.2 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental United States? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.3 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Alaska? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.4 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is American Samoa? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.5 For uniformity in international radio communication, what time measurement standard should Amateur Radio operators worldwide use? A. Eastern Standard Time B. Uniform Calibrated Time C. Coordinated Universal Time D. Universal Time Control 3B-8.6 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Hawaii? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.7 In which International Telecommunication Union Region are the Northern Mariana Islands? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.8 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Guam? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-8.9 In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Wake Island? A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3 D. Region 4 3B-10.1 What is the ++++Amateur Auxiliary++++ to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau? A. Amateur Volunteers formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations B. Amateur Volunteers who conduct Amateur Radio licensing examinations C. Amateur Volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters D. Amateur Volunteers who determine height above average terrain measurements for repeater installations 3B-10.2 What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field Operations Bureau? A. To enforce amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules B. To foster amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules C. To promote efficient and orderly spectrum usage in the repeater subbands D. To provide emergency and public safety communications 3C-1.6 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can normally be covered in one hop using the F2 layer? A. Approximately 180 miles B. Approximately 1200 miles C. Approximately 2500 miles D. No distance. This layer does not support radio communication 3C-1.7 What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that can be covered in one hop using the E layer? A. Approximately 180 miles B. Approximately 1200 miles C. Approximately 2500 miles D. No distance. This layer does not support radio communication 3C-1.9 What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E layer? A. 45 miles B. 70 miles C. 200 miles D. 1200 miles 3C-1.10 During what part of the day, and in what season of the year can the F2 layer be expected to reach its maximum height? A. At noon during the summer B. At midnight during the summer C. At dusk in the spring and fall D. At noon during the winter 3C-1.13 What is the ++++critical angle++++, as used in radio wave propagation? A. The lowest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth under specific ionospheric conditions B. The compass direction of the desired DX station from your location C. The 180-degree-inverted compass direction of the desired DX station from your location D. The highest take off angle that will return a radio wave to earth during specific ionospheric conditions 3C-2.3 What is the main reason that the 160-, 80-, and 40-meter wavelength amateur bands tend to be useful for only short- distance communications during daylight hours? A. Because of a lack of activity B. Because of auroral propagation C. Because of D-layer absorption D. Because of magnetic flux 3C-2.4 What is the principal reason the 160-meter through 40- meter wavelength bands are useful for only short-distance radio communications during daylight hours? A. F-layer bending B. Gamma radiation C. D-layer absorption D. Tropospheric ducting 3C-3.3 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Minnesota to Africa is 22-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO? A. 10 meters B. 15 meters C. 20 meters D. 40 meters 3C-3.4 If the maximum usable frequency on the path from Ohio to West Germany is 17-MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful QSO? A. 80 meters B. 40 meters C. 20 meters D. 2 meters 3C-5.1 Over what periods of time do sudden ionospheric disturbances normally last? A. The entire day B. A few minutes to a few hours C. A few hours to a few days D. Approximately one week 3C-5.2 What can be done at an amateur station to continue radio communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance? A. Try a higher frequency B. Try the other sideband C. Try a different antenna polarization D. Try a different frequency shift 3C-5.3 What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daylight ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? A. Disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths B. Disrupts transmissions on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies C. Disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications D. None. Only dark (as in nighttime) areas of the globe are affected 3C-5.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's ultraviolet radiation to cause ionospheric disturbances on earth? A. Instantaneously B. 1.5 seconds C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours 3C-5.5 Sudden ionospheric disturbances cause increased radio wave absorption in which layer of the ionosphere? A. D layer B. E layer C. F1 layer D. F2 layer 3C-6.2 What is a characteristic of ++++backscatter++++ signals? A. High intelligibility B. A wavering sound C. Reversed modulation D. Reversed sidebands 3C-6.4 What makes backscatter signals often sound distorted? A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field B. The propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal's clarity C. The earth's E-layer at the point of radio wave refraction D. The small part of the signal's energy scattered back to the transmitter skip zone through several radio-wave paths 3C-6.5 What is the radio wave propagation phenomenon that allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky wave propagation? A. Ground wave B. Scatter C. Sporadic-E skip D. Short path skip 3C-6.6 When does ionospheric scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur? A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum B. At night C. When the F1 and F2 layers are combined D. At frequencies above the maximum usable frequency 3C-7.1 What is ++++solar flux++++? A. The density of the sun's magnetic field B. The radio energy emitted by the sun C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun 3C-7.2 What is the ++++solar-flux index++++? A. A measure of past measurements of solar activity B. A measurement of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months C. Another name for the American sunspot number D. A measure of solar activity that is taken daily 3C-7.3 What is a timely indicator of solar activity? A. The 2800-MHz solar flux index B. The mean Canadian sunspot number C. A clock set to Coordinated Universal Time D. Van Allen radiation measurements taken at Boulder, Colorado 3C-7.4 What type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter wavelength band are indicated by a solar-flux index value of 60 to 70? A. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation B. No ionospheric propagation is possible C. Excellent ionospheric propagation D. Poor ionospheric propagation 3C-7.5 A solar flux index in the range of 90 to 110 indicates what type of propagation conditions on the 15-meter wavelength band? A. Poor ionospheric propagation B. No ionospheric propagation is possible C. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation D. Good ionospheric propagation 3C-7.6 A solar flux index of greater than 120 would indicate what type of propagation conditions on the 10-meter wavelength band? A. Good ionospheric propagation B. Poor ionospheric propagation C. No ionospheric propagation is possible D. Unpredictable ionospheric propagation 3C-7.7 For widespread long distance openings on the 6-meter wavelength band, what solar-flux index values would be required? A. Less than 50 B. Approximately 75 C. Greater than 100 D. Greater than 250 3C-7.8 If the MUF is high and HF radio communications are generally good for several days, a similar condition can usually be expected how many days later? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 28 days D. 90 days 3C-10.1 What is a ++++geomagnetic disturbance++++? A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole C. Ripples in the ionosphere D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period of time 3C-10.2 Which latitude paths are more susceptible to geomagnetic disturbances? A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude B. Those less than 45 degrees latitude C. Equatorial paths D. All paths are affected equally 3C-10.3 What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio communications? A. Improved high-latitude HF communications B. Degraded high-latitude HF communications C. Improved ground-wave propagation D. Improved chances of ducting at UHF 3C-10.4 How long does it take a solar disturbance that increases the sun's radiation of charged particles to affect radio wave propagation on earth? A. The effect is instantaneous B. 1.5 seconds C. 8 minutes D. 20 to 40 hours 3D-1.5 Which wires in a four conductor line cord should be attached to fuses in a 234-VAC primary (single phase) power supply? A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire C. Only the ground (bare) wire D. All wires 3D-1.6 What size wire is normally used on a 15-ampere, 117-VAC household lighting circuit? A. AWG number 14 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 18 D. AWG number 22 3D-1.7 What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 117-VAC household appliance circuit? A. AWG number 20 B. AWG number 16 C. AWG number 14 D. AWG number 12 3D-1.8 What could be a cause of the room lights dimming when the transmitter is keyed? A. RF in the AC pole transformer B. High resistance in the key contacts C. A drop in AC line voltage D. The line cord is wired incorrectly 3D-1.9 What size fuse should be used on a #12 wire household appliance circuit? A. Maximum of 100 amperes B. Maximum of 60 amperes C. Maximum of 30 amperes D. Maximum of 20 amperes 3D-2.4 What safety feature is provided by a bleeder resistor in a power supply? A. It improves voltage regulation B. It discharges the filter capacitors C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils D. It eliminates ground-loop current 3D-3.1 What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Normal speech B. An audio-frequency sine wave C. Two audio-frequency sine waves D. An audio-frequency square wave 3D-3.2 To test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter with an oscilloscope, what should the audio input to the transmitter be? A. Normal speech B. An audio-frequency sine wave C. Two audio-frequency sine waves D. An audio-frequency square wave 3D-3.3 How are two tones used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope B. Two harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a distortion analyzer C. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on an oscilloscope D. Two non-harmonically related audio tones are fed into the microphone input of the transmitter, and the output is observed on a wattmeter 3D-3.4 What audio frequencies are used in a ++++two-tone test++++ of the linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz tones must be used B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio passband, and must be harmonically related D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter audio passband, and should not be harmonically related 3D-3.5 What can be determined by making a ++++two-tone test++++ using an oscilloscope? A. The percent of frequency modulation B. The percent of carrier phase shift C. The frequency deviation D. The amplifier linearity 3D-4.1 How can the grid-current meter in a power amplifier be used as a neutralizing indicator? A. Tune for minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed B. Tune for maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed C. Tune for minimum grid current D. Tune for maximum grid current 3D-4.2 Why is neutralization in some vacuum tube amplifiers necessary? A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q in practical tuned circuits B. To reduce grid to cathode leakage C. To cancel acid build-up caused by thorium oxide gas D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode capacitance 3D-4.3 How is neutralization of an RF amplifier accomplished? A. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input on alternate half cycles B. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted 360 degrees out of phase C. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input shifted 180 degrees out of phase D. By supplying energy from the amplifier output to the input with a proper DC bias 3D-4.4 What purpose does a neutralizing circuit serve in an RF amplifier? A. It controls differential gain B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback C. It eliminates circulating currents D. It reduces incidental grid modulation 3D-4.5 What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter? A. To limit the modulation index B. To eliminate parasitic oscillations C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods D. To keep the carrier on frequency 3D-5.1 How can the output PEP of a transmitter be determined with an oscilloscope? A. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(Vp)(Vp)]/(RL) B. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(0.707 PEV)(0.707 PEV)]/RL C. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = (Vp)(Vp)(RL) D. Measure peak load voltage across a resistive load with an oscilloscope, and calculate, using PEP = [(1.414 PEV)(1.414 PEV)]/RL 3D-5.5 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows 200-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals? A. 100 watts B. 200 watts C. 400 watts D. 1000 watts 3D-5.6 What is the output PEP from a transmitter when an oscilloscope shows 500-volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output terminals? A. 500 watts B. 625 watts C. 1250 watts D. 2500 watts 3D-5.7 What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter when an average-reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output terminals indicates 1060 watts? A. 530 watts B. 1060 watts C. 1500 watts D. 2120 watts 3D-6.1 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? A. The ohmmeter B. The signal generator C. The ammeter D. The oscilloscope 3D-6.2 What types of signals can an oscilloscope measure? A. Any time-dependent signal within the bandwidth capability of the instrument B. Blinker-light signals from ocean-going vessels C. International nautical flag signals D. Signals created by aeronautical flares 3D-6.3 What is an ++++oscilloscope++++? A. An instrument that displays the radiation resistance of an antenna B. An instrument that displays the SWR on a feed line C. An instrument that displays the resistance in a circuit D. An instrument that displays signal waveforms 3D-6.4 What can cause phosphor damage to an oscilloscope cathode ray tube? A. Directly connecting deflection electrodes to the cathode ray tube B. Too high an intensity setting C. Overdriving the vertical amplifier D. Improperly adjusted focus 3D-9.1 What is a ++++signal tracer++++? A. A direction-finding antenna B. An aid for following schematic diagrams C. A device for detecting signals in a circuit D. A device for drawing signal waveforms 3D-9.2 How is a signal tracer used? A. To detect the presence of a signal in the various stages of a receiver B. To locate a source of interference C. To trace the path of a radio signal through the ionosphere D. To draw a waveform on paper 3D-9.3 What is a signal tracer normally used for? A. To identify the source of radio transmissions B. To make exact replicas of signals C. To give a visual indication of standing waves on open- wire feed lines D. To identify an inoperative stage in a radio receiver 3D-10.1 What is the most effective way to reduce or eliminate audio frequency interference to home entertainment systems? A. Install bypass inductors B. Install bypass capacitors C. Install metal oxide varistors D. Install bypass resistors 3D-10.2 What should be done when a properly operating amateur station is the source of interference to a nearby telephone? A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment B. Contact a phone service representative about installing RFI filters C. Nothing can be done to cure the interference D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier 3D-10.3 What sound is heard from a public address system when audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby single- sideband phone transmission? A. A steady hum that persists while the transmitter's carrier is on the air B. On-and-off humming or clicking C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals 3D-10.4 How can the possibility of audio rectification occurring be minimized? A. By using a solid state transmitter B. By using CW emission only C. By ensuring all station equipment is properly grounded D. By using AM emission only 3D-10.5 What sound is heard from a public address system when audio rectification occurs in response to a nearby double- sideband phone transmission? A. Audible, possibly distorted speech from the transmitter signals B. On-and-off humming or clicking C. Muffled, distorted speech from the transmitter's signals D. Extremely loud, severely distorted speech from the transmitter's signals 3D-12.2 What is the reason for using a speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter power requirements B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency fidelity D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal intelligibility at the receiver 3D-12.3 When a transmitter is 100% modulated, will a speech processor increase the output PEP? A. Yes B. No C. It will decrease the transmitter's peak power output D. It will decrease the transmitter's average power output 3D-12.4 Under which band conditions should a speech processor not be used? A. When there is high atmospheric noise on the band B. When the band is crowded C. When the frequency in use is clear D. When the sunspot count is relatively high 3D-12.5 What effect can result from using a speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces average transmitter power requirements B. A properly adjusted speech processor reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone C. A properly adjusted speech processor improves voice frequency fidelity D. A properly adjusted speech processor improves signal intelligibility at the receiver 3D-13.1 At what point in a coaxial line should an electronic T-R switch be installed? A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna C. At the antenna feed point D. Right after the low-pass filter 3D-13.2 Why is an electronic T-R switch preferable to a mechanical one? A. Greater receiver sensitivity B. Circuit simplicity C. Higher operating speed D. Cleaner output signals 3D-13.3 What station accessory facilitates QSK operation? A. Oscilloscope B. Audio CW filter C. Antenna relay D. Electronic TR switch 3D-14.6 What is an antenna ++++noise bridge++++? A. An instrument for measuring the noise figure of an antenna or other electrical circuit B. An instrument for measuring the impedance of an antenna or other electrical circuit C. An instrument for measuring solar flux D. An instrument for tuning out noise in a receiver 3D-14.7 How is an antenna noise bridge used? A. It is connected at the antenna feed point, and the noise is read directly B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and tuned for minimum SWR C. It is connected between a receiver and an unknown impedance and tuned for minimum noise D. It is connected between an antenna and a Transmatch and adjusted for minimum SWR 3D-15.1 How does the emitted waveform from a properly adjusted single-sideband phone transmitter appear on a monitoring oscilloscope? A. A vertical line B. A waveform that mirrors the input waveform C. A square wave D. Two loops at right angles 3D-15.2 What is the best instrument for checking the transmitted signal quality from a CW or single-sideband phone transmitter? A. A monitor oscilloscope B. A field strength meter C. A sidetone monitor D. A diode probe and an audio amplifier 3D-15.3 What is a ++++monitoring oscilloscope++++? A. A device used by the FCC to detect out-of-band signals B. A device used to observe the waveform of a transmitted signal C. A device used to display SSTV signals D. A device used to display signals in a receiver IF stage 3D-15.4 How is a monitoring oscilloscope connected in a station in order to check the quality of the transmitted signal? A. Connect the receiver IF output to the vertical-deflection plates of the oscilloscope B. Connect the transmitter audio input to the oscilloscope vertical input C. Connect a receiving antenna directly to the oscilloscope vertical input D. Connect the transmitter output to the vertical-deflection plates of the oscilloscope 3D-17.2 What is the most appropriate instrument to use when determining antenna horizontal radiation patterns? A. A field strength meter B. A grid-dip meter C. A wave meter D. A vacuum-tube voltmeter 3D-17.3 What is a ++++field-strength++++ meter? A. A device for determining the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line B. A device for checking modulation on the output of a transmitter C. A device for monitoring relative RF output D. A device for increasing the average transmitter output 3D-17.4 What is a simple instrument that can be useful for monitoring relative RF output during antenna and transmitter adjustments? A. A field-strength meter B. An antenna noise bridge C. A multimeter D. A Transmatch 3D-17.5 When the power output from a transmitter is increased by four times, how should the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver change? A. Decrease by approximately one S-unit B. Increase by approximately one S-unit C. Increase by approximately four S-units D. Decrease by approximately four S-units 3D-17.6 By how many times must the power output from a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S-8 to S-9? A. Approximately 2 times B. Approximately 3 times C. Approximately 4 times D. Approximately 5 times See GEN-2.ASC for the remainder of this pool plus it's answers...